I read this one in a comment on one of the news sites:
"A well educated society, being necessary to the prosperity of a free state, the right of the people to own and read books, shall not be infringed"
Individual or collective? Do only well educated people get to have books, or does everyone get to have books? Is "well educated" a prerequisite for owning books, or one of the many outcomes of owning them?
If you argue that "militia" is a prerequisite to "keep and bear", wouldn't you also have to argue that "well educated" would be a prerequisite to "own and read"? I'd love to hear someone defend that argument. I doubt such a defense would be coming from any "well educated" person.
Alternately, why would a government declare that "The right of our military to bear arms shall not be infringed". Duh. What army doesn't have guns? What else could the founding fathers have meant in the second amendment, other than the general populace?
Finally! There's no need to debate the meaning any further, not that a debate should have ever existed. The Supreme Court has clearly ruled on it. Today is a very good day in my book. I'm still mystified how something that seems so clear could be so misinterpreted that it required the Supreme Court to settle it. But it's done.